S F Johnson Consulting, LLC
Services all contractors need since 2010

Nevada Law & Business - Safety

Nevada Law & Business - Safety

Nevada Business & Law — Section 7: Safety & OSHA (DIR)

In Nevada, OSHA enforcement runs through the Division of Industrial Relations (DIR). PSI questions often test: employer duties, competent person, training, fall protection, scaffolds & ladders, trenching/excavation, electrical/LOTO, HazCom/SDS, respiratory/silica, recordkeeping (OSHA 300/301), inspections, citations, abatement, appeals, and the multi-employer worksite policy. Tab the definition boxes and any tables that list thresholds, distances, and timelines.

1) Roles, Duties & Enforcement Who does what?

DIR / OSHA

  • DIR administers OSHA in Nevada: inspections, citations, penalties, consultation.
  • Inspection priorities: Imminent danger → Fatalities/Catastrophes → Complaints → Programmed.
  • Employer rights: representative at inspection, opening/closing conference, accompany inspector, contest citations.

Employer Duties

  • Provide a workplace free of recognized hazards (general duty).
  • Train employees, provide PPE, and enforce rules.
  • Maintain logs (OSHA 300/300A), incident/first aid procedures, and required postings.
2) Safety Programs, Training & Competent Person Foundations

Written Program

  • Injury & Illness Prevention elements: responsibilities, hazard ID, training, reporting, corrective actions, documentation.
  • Tailgate/toolbox meetings; JSAs/JHAs for higher-risk tasks.

Competent Person

  • Authorized to identify hazards and take prompt corrective measures.
  • Required for scaffolds, excavations, certain fall protection, and silica tasks.
3) Fall Protection & Ladders/Scaffolds High-risk topics

Fall Protection

  • Control at required heights; choose guardrails, safety nets, or PFAS as applicable.
  • Anchor points, harness/lanyard inspection, and rescue planning.

Ladders

  • Set up on stable base; maintain 3 points of contact; do not stand on top cap.
  • Extension ladder angle ≈ 1:4; extend above landing; secure at top if possible.

Scaffolds

  • Erect/alter/dismantle under a competent person.
  • Full planking, guardrails/toeboards where required, safe access, inspect daily.
4) Excavation, Trenching & Soil Cave-in prevention

Hazards & Controls

  • Atmospheric hazards, utilities, water intrusion, spoil piles, access/egress.
  • Protective systems: sloping/benching, shoring, or shielding (trench box).

Competent Person

  • Daily inspections and after hazards (rain, vibration) and soil classification.
  • Provide ladders/ramps and keep spoil ≥ recommended distance from edge.
5) Electrical, Lockout/Tagout & Tools Energy control
  • Ground-fault protection, extension cord inspection, and guarding live parts.
  • LOTO: written procedures, training, verify zero energy before work.
  • Power tools: guards in place, correct PPE, damaged tools removed from service.
6) Hazard Communication (HazCom) & Chemicals SDS & labeling

Program Elements

  • Written HazCom program; inventory of hazardous substances.
  • SDS accessible to workers; GHS labeling, pictograms.

Training

  • Initial and when new hazards introduced; spill/first aid basics; storage/compatibility.
7) Respiratory Protection, Silica & Hearing Industrial hygiene

Respirators

  • Written program, medical evals, fit testing, selection, and user seal checks.

Silica

  • Follow specified control methods (water, ventilation) or exposure assessments.
  • Housekeeping and restricted areas; competent person oversight for certain tasks.

Hearing

  • Noise monitoring, hearing protection, training, and audiograms when required.
8) Cranes, Rigging & Heavy Equipment Operations & signals
  • Qualified operators; inspections (daily/periodic); load charts; outrigger setup on firm level ground.
  • Signal persons qualified; tag lines; rigging inspected; no workers under suspended loads.
  • Equipment: backup alarms/spotters; seatbelts; swing radius controls; barricades.
9) Confined Space, Fire Protection & Housekeeping General safety

Confined Space

  • Identify permit spaces; atmospheric testing; ventilation; attendants; permits.

Fire Protection

  • Extinguishers accessible/inspected; hot work permits; fuel storage/handling.

Housekeeping/Egress

  • Keep aisles/exits clear; debris control; lighting; stair/ladder access maintained.
10) Incident Reporting, Recordkeeping & Citations Logs & appeals

Report/Record

  • Know which incidents are reportable and recordable; maintain OSHA 300/301, post 300A annually.
  • Medical treatment beyond first aid → recordable; keep privacy cases as required.

Inspection Outcomes

  • Citations: other-than-serious, serious, willful/repeat; abatement and posting required.
  • Informal conference or formal contest within allowed days; abatement verification documentation.
11) Multi-Employer Worksite Policy Who is responsible?
  • Categories: Creating, Exposing, Correcting, and Controlling employers.
  • GCs often are controlling employers and must exercise reasonable care to detect and correct hazards.
  • Subs with their own hazards may be creating; those whose workers are endangered are exposing.

Practice Exam — 60 Questions Answers & brief explanations under each

1. In Nevada, OSHA enforcement is administered by:

  1. PSI
  2. DIR
  3. DOT
  4. EPA
Answer

B — Nevada’s Division of Industrial Relations.

2. Inspection priority order begins with:

  1. Programmed inspections
  2. Complaints
  3. Imminent danger situations
  4. Random audits
Answer

C — Imminent danger first.

3. The “general duty” requires employers to:

  1. Post job ads
  2. Provide a workplace free from recognized hazards
  3. Hire only engineers
  4. Work overtime
Answer

B — Foundational employer duty.

4. A “competent person” is one who:

  1. Holds any license
  2. Can identify hazards and has authority to correct them
  3. Is the owner
  4. Is a visitor
Answer

B — Knowledge + authority.

5. The best first choice for fall protection is often:

  1. Harness only
  2. Administrative controls
  3. Engineering controls like guardrails where feasible
  4. No control
Answer

C — Hierarchy of controls.

6. Extension ladders should be set at approximately:

  1. 1:1
  2. 1:4 (rise:run)
  3. 1:10
  4. Flat
Answer

B — 4:1 run:rise; commonly stated as 1:4 angle.

7. Scaffold inspections are performed:

  1. At install only
  2. Daily and after events that could affect integrity
  3. Annually
  4. Never
Answer

B — Competent person checks routinely.

8. A protective system is required for trenches unless:

  1. Soil is sandy
  2. Competent person says no
  3. Conditions meet the exception allowed by standard (e.g., very shallow and stable per rule)
  4. It’s the weekend
Answer

C — Otherwise use sloping/shoring/shielding.

9. Spoil piles should be kept:

  1. At edge of trench
  2. Inside trench
  3. At a safe distance from the edge as required
  4. On ladders
Answer

C — Prevents cave-ins and falls.

10. Lockout/Tagout requires:

  1. No written plan
  2. Written procedures, training, and verification of zero energy
  3. Only tags
  4. Only verbal notice
Answer

B — Control hazardous energy.

11. Under HazCom, workers must have access to:

  1. Tool catalogs
  2. Safety Data Sheets (SDS)
  3. Social media
  4. Owner’s diary
Answer

B — SDS + labels + training.

12. Respirator use generally requires:

  1. Medical evaluation & fit test
  2. Just a signature
  3. No training
  4. Earplugs
Answer

A — Part of a written program.

13. Silica controls often include:

  1. Dry sweeping only
  2. Water delivery or local exhaust per specified methods
  3. No housekeeping
  4. Paper masks only
Answer

B — Follow specified control tables or assessments.

14. Crane outriggers must be set on:

  1. Soft soil without pads
  2. Firm, level support with pads/mats per load
  3. Debris piles
  4. Trenches
Answer

B — Stability is critical.

15. Workers may pass under suspended loads when:

  1. They need to hurry
  2. Never—keep out of the fall zone
  3. If wearing hard hats
  4. During lunch
Answer

B — Stay clear of suspended loads.

16. A permit-required confined space typically has:

  1. Windows
  2. Limited entry/exit and potential hazards (atmospheric, engulfment, etc.)
  3. Snack bar
  4. Benches
Answer

B — Extra controls and permits needed.

17. Fire extinguishers must be:

  1. Hidden
  2. Accessible, inspected, and appropriate class
  3. In the office only
  4. Personal items
Answer

B — Location, type, inspection.

18. Good housekeeping reduces:

  1. Trips, slips, fires, and blocked egress
  2. Only taxes
  3. Bids
  4. Noise
Answer

A — Core prevention.

19. OSHA 300 logs track:

  1. Invoices
  2. Recordable injuries/illnesses
  3. Timecards
  4. RFIs
Answer

B — Recordkeeping requirement.

20. A citation classified as “serious” means:

  1. No hazard
  2. Substantial probability of death/serious harm
  3. Paperwork error only
  4. Parking ticket
Answer

B — Elevated severity.

21. The 300A summary is typically:

  1. Private
  2. Posted for employees annually
  3. Shredded
  4. Sent to architect
Answer

B — Annual posting window.

22. During an inspection, the employer may:

  1. Refuse to attend
  2. Accompany the inspector and provide records
  3. Hide hazards
  4. Destroy logs
Answer

B — Exercise rights professionally.

23. An exposing employer is one who:

  1. Created the hazard
  2. Has workers exposed to the hazard
  3. Controls the site
  4. Provides training only
Answer

B — Multi-employer policy term.

24. A controlling employer must:

  1. Ignore subs
  2. Exercise reasonable care to detect/correct hazards
  3. Only review bids
  4. Handle payroll
Answer

B — GC responsibilities on site.

25. A first-aid case becomes recordable when:

  1. Ice is applied
  2. Medical treatment beyond first aid is provided
  3. Band-aid used
  4. Safety talk held
Answer

B — Triggers recordability.

26. Ladder top cap standing is:

  1. Allowed
  2. Prohibited
  3. Best practice
  4. For storage
Answer

B — Don’t stand on top cap.

27. Daily excavation checks are done by:

  1. Any worker
  2. A competent person
  3. Lender
  4. Designer
Answer

B — Inspections + soil classification.

28. Guardrails typically include:

  1. Top rail, midrail, toeboard where required
  2. Only tape
  3. Only signage
  4. No rails
Answer

A — Physical fall prevention.

29. A PFAS includes:

  1. Harness, lanyard, anchor
  2. Gloves only
  3. Boots
  4. Earplugs
Answer

A — Personal fall arrest system.

30. Aerial lift users must:

  1. Ride rails
  2. Wear fall protection if required by manufacturer/policy
  3. Stand on boxes
  4. Leave gates open
Answer

B — Follow manufacturer & program.

31. Tag lines are used to:

  1. Decorate cranes
  2. Control loads and reduce swing
  3. Replace rigging
  4. Measure wind
Answer

B — Load control.

32. GFCI protection is required for:

  1. Cord-and-plug tools in construction
  2. Brooms
  3. Hand saws only
  4. Flashlights
Answer

A — Shock prevention.

33. SDS must be:

  1. Locked away
  2. Readily accessible to workers during shifts
  3. In HR only
  4. Shredded monthly
Answer

B — Access is mandatory.

34. Hot work permits help control:

  1. Noise
  2. Fire hazards from welding/cutting
  3. Payroll
  4. Parking
Answer

B — Fire prevention protocol.

35. A written emergency action plan should cover:

  1. Only vacations
  2. Alarm, evacuation routes, roles, training
  3. Coffee breaks
  4. Bids
Answer

B — Preparedness basics.

36. Noise exposure is controlled by:

  1. Earbuds
  2. Engineering/administrative controls and hearing protection
  3. Paper hats
  4. Dust masks
Answer

B — Hearing conservation.

37. A rigging sling with broken wires should:

  1. Be painted
  2. Be removed from service
  3. Be reused
  4. Be taped
Answer

B — Defective = out of service.

38. Forklift operators must be:

  1. Able to drive a car
  2. Trained and evaluated/certified
  3. Vendors
  4. Signal persons
Answer

B — Powered industrial truck training.

39. Egress paths must be:

  1. Blocked
  2. Clear and illuminated
  3. Hidden
  4. Behind storage
Answer

B — Emergency exit requirements.

40. If you disagree with a citation, you may:

  1. Do nothing
  2. File a timely contest/appeal
  3. Retaliate
  4. Ignore abatement
Answer

B — Use the contest process within the deadline.

41. A toolbox talk is:

  1. A lunch coupon
  2. A brief, documented safety meeting on a specific hazard
  3. Payroll time
  4. Bid opening
Answer

B — Ongoing training method.

42. Open sides on scaffolds generally require:

  1. Warning tape
  2. Guardrails and toeboards where required
  3. Nothing
  4. Paint
Answer

B — Fall/struck-by controls.

43. Before digging, you should:

  1. Guess
  2. Locate underground utilities
  3. Start excavating
  4. Drain fuel
Answer

B — One-call/locate utilities.

44. When respirators are required, facial hair:

  1. Is fine anywhere
  2. Cannot interfere with the seal
  3. Must be long
  4. Must be dyed
Answer

B — Proper seal is essential.

45. Aerial lift fall protection anchor points should be:

  1. Guardrail midrails
  2. Manufacturer-designated anchor points
  3. Basket floor
  4. Anywhere
Answer

B — Use designated anchorage.

46. “Willful” citation implies:

  1. Clerical error
  2. Knowing, intentional disregard of requirements
  3. No hazard
  4. Weather issue
Answer

B — Highest severity class.

47. Abatement verification means:

  1. Ignoring hazards
  2. Proving the hazard was corrected by the deadline
  3. Paying workers
  4. Sending gift cards
Answer

B — Provide photos/receipts/training logs.

48. Hearing protection is required when:

  1. Noise levels meet/exceed action limits
  2. It’s Tuesday
  3. Workers are off site
  4. In HR
Answer

A — Based on exposure levels.

49. A ladder must extend above the landing by about:

  1. One rung
  2. As specified by standard (commonly ~3 ft)
  3. 10 ft
  4. Not at all
Answer

B — For safe transition; check your book’s figure.

50. A JSA/JHA documents:

  1. Lunch orders
  2. Steps of a task, hazards, and controls
  3. Bidding rules
  4. Lien notices
Answer

B — Formal hazard analysis.

51. To control silica when cutting concrete, use:

  1. Leaf blower
  2. Wet methods or HEPA vac per table method
  3. Cloth mask
  4. Paint
Answer

B — Engineering controls first.

52. Employees must be trained on HazCom:

  1. Only at hire
  2. At hire and when new hazards are introduced
  3. Never
  4. At retirement
Answer

B — Ongoing hazard-based training.

53. An “other-than-serious” citation:

  1. Has no penalty
  2. Relates to recordkeeping/labeling/etc. without substantial probability of serious harm
  3. Is a gift
  4. Means no abatement
Answer

B — Lower severity classification.

54. A spotter for heavy equipment helps prevent:

  1. Payroll errors
  2. Struck-by/backover incidents
  3. Noise
  4. Emails
Answer

B — Use spotters and alarms.

55. Toeboards help prevent:

  1. Trips
  2. Falling object hazards to workers below
  3. Noise
  4. Dust
Answer

B — Edge protection measure.

56. Portable extinguisher class for ordinary combustibles is:

  1. Class A
  2. Class B
  3. Class C
  4. Class D
Answer

A — A=trash/wood/paper; B=liquids; C=electrical; D=metals.

57. If fall arrest is used, a rescue plan is:

  1. Unnecessary
  2. Required/planned so a suspended worker is retrieved promptly
  3. Only verbal
  4. Only for cranes
Answer

B — Don’t rely on 911 alone.

58. The opening conference at an inspection typically includes:

  1. Random chat
  2. Scope, reason for inspection, and rights
  3. Pizza order
  4. Bid tab
Answer

B — Sets expectations.

59. After a citation, posting requirements generally mean:

  1. Hide the citation
  2. Post it near the violation area or where employees see it until abated
  3. Send to vendors
  4. Put in toolbox
Answer

B — Inform employees.

60. The most test-reliable way to answer OSHA items is to:

  1. Guess first
  2. Go to your “Safety/OSHA” tab and scan definitions, thresholds, duties, and timelines you highlighted
  3. Use lien rules
  4. Check contract alternates
Answer

B — Your tabbed NASCLA pages hold the keywords.

Next: Section 8 — Estimating, Bidding & Public Works →